NSG5003 Final

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South University NSG5003 FinalQuestion 1 (5 points)Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?Question 1 options:LysosomesPeroxisomesRibosomesOxyhydrosomesQuestion 2 (5 points)What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?Question 2 options:Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.Question 3 (5 points)Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?Question 3 options:Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.Question 4 (5 points)During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:Question 4 options:During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membraneOxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.Question 5 (5 points)What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?Question 5 options:Respiratory distressSun intoleranceDeoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrationsDeathQuestion 6 (5 points)Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2?Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.Question 7 (5 points)In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?Question 7 options:a) Oncotic pressureb) Bufferingc) Net filtrationd) Hydrostatic pressureQuestion 8 (5 points)Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?Question 8 options:a) Capillary hydrostaticb) Interstitial hydrostaticc) Capillary oncoticd) Interstitial oncoticQuestion 9 (5 points)At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:Question 9 options:a) The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.b) The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.c) The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.d) The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.Question 10 (5 points)It is true that natriuretic peptides:Question 10 options:a) Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.b) Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.c) Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.d) Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.Question 11 (5 points)What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?Question 11 options:a) High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.b) High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.c) High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain. d) High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.Question 12 (5 points)A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:Question 12 options:a) Intracellular and extracellular Na+b) . Intracellular and extracellular K+c) Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+d) Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+Question 13 (5 points)In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?Question 13 options:a) Hypopolarizationb) Hyperexcitabilityc) Depolarizationd) RepolarizationQuestion 14 (5 points)Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:Question 14 options:a) 20:1b) 1:20c) 10:2d) 10:5Question 15 (5 points)Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:Question 15 options:a) Losses or diminished production of plasma albuminb) Inflammation resulting from an immune responsec) Blockage within the lymphatic channel systemd) Sodium and water retentionQuestion 16 (5 points)Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:Question 16 options:a) A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer developmentb)  Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repairc) An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignantd) Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesisQuestion 17 (5 points)The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:Question 17 options:a) Are antigen-presenting moleculesb) Bind antigens to antibodiesc) Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune processd) Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytesQuestion 18 (5 points)The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:Question 18 options:a) Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cellb) Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicatec) Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyted) Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleusQuestion 19 (5 points)The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:Question 19 options:a) Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptorsb) Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cellsc) Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organsd) Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populationsSaveQuestion 20 (5 points)Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:Question 20 options:a) Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)b) Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)c) Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)d) Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)Question 21 (5 points)What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?Question 21 options:a) Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.b) Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.c) Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.d) Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.Question 22 (5 points)When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:Question 22 options:a) Complement-mediated cell lysisb) Phagocytosis by macrophagesc) Phagocytosis in the spleend) Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen productsSaveQuestion 23 (5 points)? Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:Question 23 options:a) Endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamusb) Exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamusc) Immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamusd) Cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamusQuestion 24 (5 points)Vaccines against viruses are created from:Question 24 options:a) Killed organisms or extracts of antigensb) Live organisms weakened to produce antigensc) Purified toxins that have been chemically detoxifiedd) Recombinant pathogenic proteinQuestion 25 (5 points)Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?Question 25 options:a) Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.b) Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.c) Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cellsd) Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.Question 26 (5 points)Two “hits” are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because:Question 26 options:a) Each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.b) The first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.c) Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis.d) The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.Question 27 (5 points)What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy?Question 27 options:a) Infectionb) Ultraviolet damagec) Paind) ErythemaQuestion 28 (5 points)When a child is diagnosed with cancer, which intervention has the greatest influence on the child’s mortality rate?Question 28 options:a) Age at the time of diagnosisb) Participation in clinical trialsc) Proximity to a major cancer treatment centerd) Parental involvement in the treatment planningQuestion 29 (5 points)Reflex activities concerned with the heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?Question 29 options:a) Ponsb) Midbrainc) Cerebellumd) Medulla oblongataQuestion 30 (5 points)The edema of the upper cervical cord after a spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of which possible outcome?Question 30 options:a) Hypovolemic shock from blood lost during the injuryb) Breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragmc) Head injury that likely occurred during the injuryd) Spinal shock immediately after the injuryQuestion 31 (5 points)What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?Question 31 options:a) Craniosacral dysreflexiab) Parasympathetic dysreflexiac) Autonomic hyperreflexiad) Retrograde hyperreflexiaSaveQuestion 32 (5 points)Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:Question 32 options:a) . In larger veinsb) Near capillary sphinctersc) At branches of arteriesd) On the venous sinusesQuestion 33 (5 points)Multiple sclerosis is best described as:Question 33 options:a) A CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virusb) Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorderc) The depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virusd) A degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factorsQuestion 34 (5 points)Graves disease develops from:Question 34 options:a) A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormoneb) An autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissuec) Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormonesd) Ingestion of goitrogens, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiterQuestion 35 (5 points)Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include:Question 35 options:a) High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulinsb) Diminished levels of TRHc) High levels of TSHd) Diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulinQuestion 36 (5 points)A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum potassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?Question 36 options:a) Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.b) . Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresic) Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.d) Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.Question 37 (5 points)Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as:Question 37 options:a) Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissuesb) The need for lispro instead of regular insulinc) An increase in glucagon secretion from ? cells of the pancreasd) The presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy ? cells in the pancreasQuestion 38 (5 points)The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?Question 38 options:a) Immunoglobulin E (IgE)b) Immunoglobulin G (IgG)c) Immunoglobulin M (IgM)d) T cellsQuestion 39 (5 points)A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:Question 39 options:a) Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administrationb) The dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtimec) Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercised) Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivityQuestion 40 (5 points)Hypoglycemia, followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with:Question 40 options:a) The Somogyi effectb) <

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